Ha! I think I finally understand your question about which translation I'm using. What I have been looking at the most is the interlinear translation on Bible Hub (https://biblehub.com/interlinear/acts/3.htm). I'm assuming the Bible Hub interlinear is intended to be the original Greek (or close to it based on a mix of existing manuscripts). I guess I really don't know where their word for word translation comes from. Occasionally, when the interlinear makes my head swim a bit and I want to get a better idea of context, I am read from a mix of translations. The ones at my fingertips are { ESV, NASB, NKJV, KJV, NIV}. In the following locations I am seeing explicit prepositions being used in the Greek. { 1 Tim. , Acts 3:16 (https://biblehub.com/text/acts/3-16.htm) , Acts 15:9 (https://biblehub.com/text/acts/15-9.htm) } It seems quite more frequently, the definite article is being translated into a preposition or combination of the definite article and a preposition. Here are 2 examples { https://biblehub.com/text/acts/6-7.htm , https://biblehub.com/text/acts/14-22.htm }

Hey Justin. I really appreciate you taking the time with this. There are a lot of resources for someone like me, but very few people willing to dialog. Yes, I have looked at many different uses of the dative case in koine. What I have not found is a good explanation in how to determine the proper use. Is that always context, or are there any grammar cues? For example, I find it difficult to understand why the preposition is sometimes implied by the use and sometimes it is directly added. For instance in 1 Timothy faith in dative is used multiple times and the preposition is always added. Perhaps that is simply due to the fact that koine is a bit of conglomeration of dialects and this writer had his own diction? Another example, where the preposition is directly used, is Acts 3:16, where I think the proper use would be considered dativus instrumenti. However, in Acts 15:9 there is no preposition explicitly added to the text. Does that mean the writer had different intentions or are there possibly different writers/transcribers? Thanks for the reference to BDAG! It looks like a really good investment. Do you also have a recommendation for a good grammar book?

No particular verse or context. My question stems from looking at all of the contexts here (https://biblehub.com/greek/pistei_4102.htm).

No particular verse or context. My question stems from looking at all of the contexts here (https://biblehub.com/greek/pistei_4102.htm).