Hi! I've been studying for a short period of time and I came across something that has been given me a bit of trouble.
I assume that since there are multiple cases for a noun, it can be deduced that if a noun was presented in the singular form or in the plural form it would be done with good intentions. So one can assume that the choice between singular and plural wasn't made arbitrarily?
Can someone perhaps tell me if I'm on the right track or not with my reasoning?