Is the translation of ἀρσενοκοίτης in 1 Cor 6:9 “homosexual” correct?
Ἢ οὐκ οἴδατε ὅτι ἄδικοι ΘεοῦἪ οὐκ οἴδατε ὅτι ἄδικοι θεοῦ βασιλείαν ⸃ οὐ κληρονομήσουσιν; μὴπλανᾶσθε · οὔτε πόρνοι οὔτε εἰδωλολάτραι οὔτε μοιχοὶ οὔτε μαλακοὶ οὔτε ἀρσενοκοῖται
Is the translation below the original Greek correct?
Do not be deceived: neither the sexually immoral, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor homosexuals… ?
The short answer is "yes": an αρσενοκοιτης is most certainly a homosexual. Dr. F. Wilbur Gingerich's abridgement of the longer BDAG lexicon translates the term as "a male homosexual, sodomite, pederast" (pg. 28, first edition).
The longer answer is that the term's basic meaning was never in doubt; but certain scholars tried to make distinctions between homosexual "orientation" and certain kinds of homosexual actions in their glosses of the term. Specifically, the question was whether αρσενοκοιτης referred to abusive, or to consensual homosexual "relationships"; i.e., whether Paul was condemning homosexuality in itself, or if he was condemning the sexualization of minors so historically prevalent in Greek culture.
This article by Mark Ward is the best summary I've seen on the topic. Essentially, he concludes that the broad term "homosexual" is the best gloss, despite the fact that it does not distinguish between one with same-sex attractions, and someone who acts on those feelings. From the Old Testament teachings on the topic, and the essential continuity of the Testaments, it is right to conclude that our Lord condemns all homosexuality--as indeed He condemns all sexuality outside of covenanted marriage between one man and one woman--as sin, and calls upon those who commit it to repent, and trust in His grace for forgiveness.
The Story of Ἀρσενοκοίτης according to BDAG | By Faith We Understand